Hi everyone - I started Mike’s string arrangement course today (I am a newbie) and I had a question about which string sections handle which intervals in a chord
If I understood correctly, Mike stated as follows:
Violins 1: use for the 5th of the chord
Violins 2: use for the root of the chord
Violas: use for the 3rd of the chord
So, here is some context:
I wrote a chord progression using a string ensemble patch I found among Logic’s software instruments
I then attempted to separate out, using Spitfire Audio BBC Symphony, the different sections (violins 1, violins 2, viola, cello and bass)
I have the cello and bass playing the root notes in octaves
BUT
when I use the above way of arranging the intervals of the chords, I feel as if I am losing something in the translation…
So, is using violins 2 for the root; violins 1 for the 5th; and violas for the 3rd a hard and fast rule or, should the default always be “if it sounds good, it is good”?
Bonus question (like Mike’s “Bonus Tips”):
If I am using the second inversion of a chord, would the above “rules” apply for the 1st, 3rd and 5th or would those change as well?
Thank you for any advice you could give me.